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What?
Mexicans may have some Spanish ancestry, but it's not the same as US or Canada where the vast majority of people have zero indenginus heritage.
Do you really think it's the same?
"Some". Better than 80% of the country has Spanish ancestry and basically everyone speaks Spanish. I suppose the local indigenous people just found those Spanish colonists so goddamned attractive and loved their language better than their own.
Yes...
Just like most descendents of slaves in America have "some" white DNA, it just wasn't by choice.
https://www.science.org/content/article/people-mexico-show-stunning-amount-genetic-diversity
There's a touch of Spanish in pretty much everyone by now but that's nowhere near the same ballpark as Canada and America where the majority have 0% indenginus ancestry.
That there was widespread rape...
https://www.cambridge.org/core/books/abs/cambridge-world-history-of-violence/gender-and-violence-in-early-america/0F1321203BAE9551E6E77527EAA33830
Like, it's cool if just legitimately don't know about this as long as you learn.
It's not exactly covered in k-12, that doesn't mean you can't learn about it now tho
Sorry, are these your arguments that Spanish colonialism wasn't a genocidal settler colonial project like other colonies in the Americas? Because you're doing a pretty poor job if so.
You're saying the descendants of rape victims who have a tiny percentage of colonizer DNA (as a result of those rapes generations ago) are as bad as the descendents of colonizers that have zero indenginus ancestry...
And I'm honestly at a loss of words right now on how I can make it any simpler.
Are you trying to say that trying to eliminate cultures via rape (but also murder, lets not act like none of that happened) means we can't label Mexico as a settler colonial state? Is Spanish spoken by nearly everyone as just some sort of historical accident?