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submitted 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago) by jimmycrackcrack@lemmy.world to c/asklemmy@lemmy.world

Planning a trip to 2 countries. Want to buy travel insurance for the leg of the trip taking place in the second country, after the first.

As far as I understand, this should be fine, I specify the dates of the trip to the insurance company from the day I arrive in the 2nd country to the day I leave it and if need be I'll be able provide proof that I was there (boarding passes, tickets, passport stamps) if needing to make a claim. I'd also buy the insurance prior to leaving my home country, which I know is important. It all sounds theoretically fine but I'm just worried there's going to be some unexpected gotcha in doing this.

Obviously this will depend on the fine print of my specific chosen insurance and I'm reading through all 100+ pages of it, but nevertheless the ability for this to somehow contravene something in a counterintuitive or unexpected manner even if I don't see it explicitly spelled out worries me given how tricky insurance companies can be and I wondered if this was something generally known to be a problem.

UPDATE: called the insurance company I was considering. They said there was no problem with this, as long as I bought the insurance prior to leaving my home country, which was always the plan anyway. Otherwise, it doesn't matter if the 'journey' as they define it begins after departing from a different country to my home country.

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[-] Nighed@sffa.community 1 points 5 months ago

Huh, that's supprisingly generous of them!

I may be guilty of assuming things works the same everywhere

this post was submitted on 23 Apr 2024
33 points (94.6% liked)

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