You haven't explained what is objectively wrong other than you don't like it. My argument is more than just being used to it, closely matching verbal convention is useful.

Also, it's funny that you think I'm arguing either is objectively better than the other.

[–] masterspace@lemmy.ca 1 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (1 children)

My argument is more than just being used to it, closely matching verbal convention is useful.

No, it's not, because even in the states you say it like three different ways and the English language is constantly changing and inherently has no rules on what order you need to say them in. The choice of which way to express the 1st of January in the English language is purely a subjective one.

And I have explained what is objectively wrong with it, it's out of order from a numerical time length standpoint.

[–] zagaberoo@beehaw.org 2 points 1 year ago (1 children)

How is a lack of magnitude order objectively wrong? A date format is ultimately a language feature, and the US format successfully transmits the needed info just fine within its natural context.

It may seem objective from your perspective, but language is used in many more contexts than those you are familiar with.

[–] masterspace@lemmy.ca 1 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

Because the English language has no set order to express the 1st of January.

Time lengths are objective, the way we talk about the fifth of November is not.