this post was submitted on 29 Jul 2023
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[–] Duke_Nukem_1990@feddit.de 1 points 1 year ago (3 children)

None of the lower countries had communism.

[–] Akasazh@feddit.nl 27 points 1 year ago

Technically correct. They were under Stalins Marxism-Leninism, which was supposed to be a placeholder until true communism could be implemented.

But it's a bit disingenuous to split that hair in this thread. The irony being that the latter are all countries that got to experience the kind of gouvernemental structure that Lenin facilitated.

[–] BeigeAgenda@lemmy.ca 14 points 1 year ago (2 children)

You can argue if they had sunshine scenario communism all day, but they certainly was under the oppressive thumb of USSR.

[–] SpiderShoeCult@sopuli.xyz 15 points 1 year ago (3 children)

Do not feed the troll. Strange fellas, lying on the internet, arbitrarily defining communism to suit their rose-colored ideology is no basis for a system of debate.

True debate stems from a knowledge of history, past events and conditions that led to them, not some farcical comment (as the one you are replying to).

If I went around in communist times claiming I knew what Marxism-Leninism was just because I read a manifesto, they'd send the secret police after me.

[–] BeigeAgenda@lemmy.ca 2 points 1 year ago

You are right, I just couldn't help it the bait was too great.

[–] Duke_Nukem_1990@feddit.de 9 points 1 year ago (2 children)

I didn't say anything about communism being good or bad there, just that none of those countries ever lived under communism.

[–] Catweazle@social.vivaldi.net 3 points 1 year ago

@Duke_Nukem_1990 @BeigeAgenda, correct, the key is the sovereignty of the people, not that of a single person or a small elite, this would reduce the communist system to a mere fascist dictatorship just as rotten as capitalism called democracy and where banks and multinationals dictate the rules, thereby it is not a democracy.