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submitted 1 year ago by atheist@feddit.de to c/atheism@feddit.de
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[-] j4yt33@feddit.de 1 points 1 year ago

All the translations say "man" (or "male") though, not "boy". Where did the misinterpretation happen? Genuinely curious

[-] Bael422@lemmy.world 2 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

In around 1946 it was changed from the word for man-bed to homosexual. This is due to translation from Greek to the various different languages, including English over the years. Apparently the original greek word used was arsenokoitai which wasn't the word for homosexual just meaning man-bed having many meanings such as sexual perverts, which if he meant explicitly homosexual he would have used paiderasste.

this post was submitted on 22 Jul 2023
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