this post was submitted on 06 Dec 2024
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I don't claim to understand economics, but where does this "free" credit come from, how is it sustainable if cost to manufacture is always more than what people have. It seems you just push the difference into a delayed debt.
It can come from issueing new currency. The cost of that is inflation.
That's what I'm wonder about mostly. This statement doesn't occur in the wikipedia page, and seems unsubstantiated. A human or LLM hallucination.
You're right, I'll see if I can find a better (human written) summary. Asked ChatGPT for this one since I don't understand it well enough to write one myself and I didn't want to paste the whole wikipedia page in.
I'm not going to lie, I don't fully understand it myself (partially why I'm asking about it lol), so don't take my word on this but:
My understanding is that the amount of money distributed throughout the country is directly tied to the value the country as a whole produces. It basically keeps the buying power equal to the production value.
I'm unclear on how this would work when global trade is added to the mix though.
Yeah, value of a product is what market will pay. If gov tops up your funds to buy things ( in a free market ) the prices go up. And then if you aren't focused on just your economy, but global like you mentioned, the global buyers may really want the product, raising price higher, or not want products making unequal trade. I need a "Economic Theory for Five Year Olds" book
Market value and value are different things. Value is how much a product is socially necessary, and how hard it is to produce. Market value then is what people end up paying for it in a free market. They are often different, but in aggregate for the whole end up being the same.
I believe this is mostly managed through the Compensated Price part of Social Credit, but yeah I'm with you on that book. Was hoping someone here would be an expert on the subject
Cost to manufacture is not more than wages, but cost to purchase a good is always more than the total cost of labour needed to produce it, so long as profit exists.
The money isn't free so much as redistributed from taxation elsewhere, think of it as the same as subsidising industry except only to the workers of that industry (instead giving it to owners and expecting the savings to trickle downwards). You could also consider it an income tax rebate with more fine-grained control of who gets it.
It doesn't seem particularly ground-breaking of a concept; I see the value in investing money into necessary but unprofitable industry though my concern is that if you subsidise wages of a business with a profit incentive, management may lower wages to compensate.
Edit: I apologize, I misread the question and the original post. You're right this credit is coming out of thin air and makes no sense
If the people themselves pay for the manufacture directly rather than pay for the product then you can reduce the cost to the fundamental value of the product and ignore the price increase due to the demand
If a private company pays for the manufacture and the people pay for the product there will always be a cut the middleman has to take, and they will sell at the highest price someone is willing to pay. This is the cost that people can't pay
Everyone can afford the construction costs of a home, but can't afford the competitive price