this post was submitted on 30 Apr 2024
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I know. I've studied this extensively. I am specialized in formal logic and by extension set theory. I've worked with and help write actual research papers in this field where this is basic knowledge.
I've never claimed there to be a bijection between the reals and the natural numbers. Please point out what statement I made that is wrong. I would very much like to know.
Also no you do not have to accept choice for this to be true. ZF is perfectly acceptable to study various infinite sets with differing cardinality.
Edit: This is what I mean when I say that our intuition is broken. One set can be larger than the other but both be non-ending that is infinite.
Beeing larger does not mean it is more infinite!
Your use of language is incorrect. But, since youβre clearly the only published expert with any experience in this topic on the internet, itβs really not worth pointing out that we fall on two sides of the standard axiom of choice debate since you already knew that. Have fun!
My use of language could very well be incorrect. I am not a native English speaker anyways. That's no reason to be so condescending.
I was just merely stating my credentials to have a basis of discussion but you do not seem to be interested in that.