this post was submitted on 27 Nov 2023
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[–] UrbonMaximus@feddit.uk 0 points 11 months ago (1 children)

Which countries are you talking about? China? Mongolia? South Africa? Emirates? Argentina? I would argue that the "Anglo-Saxon" countries probably have less capital inequality, but it's definitely a global problem - people with money don't need to adhere to borders.

[–] cyborganism@lemmy.ca 1 points 11 months ago (1 children)

Which countries are you talking about?

I literally wrote a list of countries in my comment...

The other ones you mentioned, with the exception of South Africa, are completely different. It's like comparing apples to oranges. Some are rich, but the wealth is in the hands of one wealthy royal family and use actual slavery, others have a complex system of social classes meant to have a poor class for workers, based on family origin. Some are just poor countries. And one had an actual apartheid where a whole race of people were discriminated against.

[–] UrbonMaximus@feddit.uk 1 points 11 months ago (1 children)

I literally wrote a list of countries in my comment...

Let's see..

..countries with other cultural influences.

No, no you didn't.

You literally compared Anglo-Saxon countries to "countries with other cultural influences" and then say it's complex.. Pick a lane dude.

[–] cyborganism@lemmy.ca 1 points 11 months ago

I misunderstood your reply, my dude.