this post was submitted on 15 Oct 2023
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[โ€“] gnuhaut@lemmy.ml 4 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (1 children)

Yes. You can make an argument that some of the land was legally purchased, but even at the time, this was part of a plan of colonization and ethnic cleansing, so it's essentially property owned by a criminal enterprise or its members. Palestinians also deserve restitution for decades of oppression. So IMHO all property owned by Israel, any Zionist institution, or any Israeli found guilty of taking part in the oppression may be seized.

[โ€“] library_napper@monyet.cc 2 points 1 year ago

The vote to create Israel included many countries, but they didn't let the Palestinians vote. Curuoislu both Inida and Pakistan (who had recently gotten independence from Britain and had a similar psrtiton happen to them) both voted against it.

I dont think an argument that it was legal could be made if they didn't bother letting the people who were living there vote on it.